I'm curious how you'd come to that last conclusion from that article, as the historical Greek languages/dialects have the noun and verb forms therein (except for the ablative case, which fell into disuse by the classical period, and prepositions taking ablatives took genetics case nouns instead)

Greek has more forms as well, having a dual number (in addition to singular and plural, a middle voice in addition to active and passive, the aorist tense...

Now, I never studied Latin, only Greek, so I have a very basic understanding of the terms as I learned them from Greek, but I've always felt like Latin was way more regular and consistent. It's a much "younger" language, too, at least compared to Attic and Homeric Greek. But, I really don't know Latin well, so I'm not in a good position to compare...